This is an odd question, and I'm honestly still trying to make sense of any way this could happen. This morning, a lead inbounded into our sales channel by filling out a demo form. And the referrer URL had a mkt_tok variable in it. (e.g., the first record the person record is a "Filled out form" activity with a referrer of "https://www.lumahealth.io/?mkt_tok=xxxx". (with a real token, of course).
My first thought was, perhaps she was forwarded an email and then converted through a forwarded email. But if that were the case, would her form fill not get associated with the original lead?
Any thoughts on this?
Solved! Go to Solution.
My first thought was, perhaps she was forwarded an email and then converted through a forwarded email.
That's by far the most likely explanation.
But if that were the case, would her form fill not get associated with the original lead?
Not if she filled in her own email address on the form!
My first thought was, perhaps she was forwarded an email and then converted through a forwarded email.
That's by far the most likely explanation.
But if that were the case, would her form fill not get associated with the original lead?
Not if she filled in her own email address on the form!
Thanks. After digging into our SFDC, it looks like she just forwarded this to her personal email! For some reason, I thought if she entered her own email address it would just override that field in the original owner of the mkt_tok.